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Jun 3, 2010 at 5:54 comment added Wadim Zudilin Skip, thanks for the reference. As far as I understand, the elementary derivation of the rational equivalence implies some other results in the paper.
Jun 2, 2010 at 15:14 comment added Skip The machinery proof is in "Orthogonal representations of twisted forms of $SL_2$", Representation Theory, vol. 12 (2008), 435-446. A preprint version is at arxiv.org/abs/math/0702731 Published version at dx.doi.org/10.1090/S1088-4165-08-00335-X
Jun 1, 2010 at 21:24 vote accept Timothy Chow
Jun 1, 2010 at 16:38 answer added fherzig timeline score: 3
Jun 1, 2010 at 10:54 answer added darij grinberg timeline score: 10
Jun 1, 2010 at 1:03 answer added Wadim Zudilin timeline score: 5
May 31, 2010 at 17:39 answer added Will Jagy timeline score: 2
May 31, 2010 at 4:34 comment added Will Jagy Thank you, Timothy. I was way off. So for n=8 we have A=diag(1,28) and then B=diag(8,56).
May 31, 2010 at 3:23 comment added Timothy Chow @Will Jagy: For n = 2, A = B = diag(1). For n = 4, A = diag(1) and B = diag(4). For n = 6, A = diag(1, 15) and B = diag(6, 10). In general if 4|n then the dimension is n/4 and if n = 2 mod 4 then the dimension is (n+2)/4.
May 31, 2010 at 2:33 comment added Pete L. Clark Indeed, it is necessary and sufficient that the discriminants are equal, the signatures are equal, and for all primes $p$ the Hasse-Witt invariants at $p$ are equal. For two particular quadratic forms $A$ and $B$, there are certainly algorithms to compute all these invariants. For an infinite family as in this case, more work and/or cleverness may be required.
May 31, 2010 at 2:27 history edited Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 2.5
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May 31, 2010 at 2:27 comment added fherzig It's not sufficient: the question asks about two rational quadratic forms to be isometric. The square class of the determinant is the discriminant of the quad. form, but there are other invariants. Ex.: diag(3,3) not isometric to diag(1,1). The main theorem on rational quadratic forms is Hasse-Minkowski (see wikipedia).
May 31, 2010 at 2:20 comment added Peter Shor Is anything known about the rational congruence of matrices? Clearly, for two diagonal matrices to be rationally congruent, their determinants must be equal up to multiplication by a rational square. Is it possible that this is sufficient?
May 31, 2010 at 0:53 comment added Wadim Zudilin Sounds nice: the corresponding diagonal quadratic forms are rationally equivalent. Reminds me a little of mathoverflow.net/questions/22399. Is there a link to the "high-powered machinery" proof?
May 31, 2010 at 0:28 history asked Timothy Chow CC BY-SA 2.5