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Apr 19, 2017 at 9:32 history edited Bobson Dugnutt CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 19, 2017 at 9:31 comment added Bobson Dugnutt @MichaelHardy Ah, it seems that it is indeed only true for standard normal distributions, my bad.
Apr 19, 2017 at 3:29 comment added Michael Hardy WAIT!! I just realized no generality is lost by assuming zero correlation, but the question of unequal variances is still there.
Apr 19, 2017 at 3:21 comment added Michael Hardy You wrote "the PDF for the $\ell^2$-norm of a multivariate normal distribution with zero mean can be shown to be the chi distribution". Can it? What if it's a bivariate normal distribution with variance $\left[\begin{array}{r} 3 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 \end{array} \right]\text{ ?}$ What you say is certainly true if the components in orthogonal directions are uncorrelated and all have variance $1$, and if they are uncorrelated and all have equal variances then it's just a constant times a chi-square random variable. But bivariate normal in general?
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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S Mar 22, 2017 at 21:28 history bounty ended Bobson Dugnutt
S Mar 22, 2017 at 21:28 history notice removed Bobson Dugnutt
Mar 22, 2017 at 20:14 vote accept Bobson Dugnutt
Mar 22, 2017 at 19:48 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 2
S Mar 22, 2017 at 16:05 history suggested Henry.L
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Mar 22, 2017 at 15:40 review Suggested edits
S Mar 22, 2017 at 16:05
Mar 21, 2017 at 16:56 answer added Henry.L timeline score: 1
S Mar 21, 2017 at 14:58 history bounty started Bobson Dugnutt
S Mar 21, 2017 at 14:58 history notice added Bobson Dugnutt Draw attention
Mar 19, 2017 at 15:57 comment added Bobson Dugnutt @CarloBeenakker Thank you, will do for future posts.
Mar 19, 2017 at 14:35 comment added Carlo Beenakker you only asked yesterday on MSE, one is typically advised to wait a week or so before crossposting...
Mar 19, 2017 at 11:00 review First posts
Mar 19, 2017 at 12:03
Mar 19, 2017 at 10:58 history asked Bobson Dugnutt CC BY-SA 3.0