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Jul 6, 2021 at 9:02 comment added David Roberts Part (a) solution: doi.org/10.2307/2318751, and part (b) solution: doi.org/10.2307/2321145
Jul 5, 2021 at 12:11 comment added Gerald Edgar @DavidRoberts ... (Rolle's theorm & real-closed) Monthly problem 5861*. Posed 1972, p. 667. Part (a) solved by me, 1975, p. 767. Part (b) solved, 1981, p. 150 .
Jul 5, 2021 at 3:53 comment added David Roberts @GeraldEdgar do you have a reference?
Mar 17, 2017 at 1:29 answer added Philip Ehrlich timeline score: 5
Mar 14, 2017 at 20:12 history edited Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2017 at 14:37 comment added Philip Ehrlich @Gerald. On the other hand, the extreme value theorem for polynomials is equivalent to real-closed. (J.M. Gamboa, Journal of Algebra 110 (1987), pp. 1-12.)
Mar 14, 2017 at 14:27 comment added Gerald Edgar Years ago in the Problems section of the Monthly there was a similar question: In an ordered field, is Rolle's Theorem for polynomials equivalent to real closed? Surprisingly, the answer is "no".
Mar 14, 2017 at 13:28 history edited Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2017 at 13:22 comment added Philip Ehrlich Emil, while the right-to-left implication is admittedly not hard to prove (though I wouldn't say trivial), I wonder if the equivalence should be attributed to Artin and Schreier. Neither in their paper nor in van der Waerden's treatment, which was based on Artin's notes, is the equivalence even hinted at.
Mar 14, 2017 at 13:12 history edited Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2017 at 9:30 comment added Emil Jeřábek The right-to-left implication is almost trivial, so I'd consider the equivalence to be due to Artin&Schreier...
Mar 14, 2017 at 4:34 history edited Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 13, 2017 at 22:13 history asked Philip Ehrlich CC BY-SA 3.0