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Dec 27, 2019 at 15:54 comment added user21820 I'm curious to know what you think "there is no set of all sets" means. You seem to suggest that it is a good thing that ZFC proves it, so presumably you think it is true, but what does it really mean at all? If it just means it is not true in any model of ZFC, then it is actually irrelevant whether other foundational systems prove it. If not, what more do you think it means?
Mar 17, 2017 at 13:34 comment added HeinrichD Here is a related statement: There is no object $X$ (of our topos of sets) such that every object $Y$ admits a monomorphism $Y \to X$.
Mar 13, 2017 at 3:51 comment added David Roberts One should mention algebraic set theory as well, which is an axiomatisation of a category of classes.
Mar 12, 2017 at 20:30 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 8
Mar 12, 2017 at 15:59 review First posts
Mar 12, 2017 at 16:02
Mar 12, 2017 at 15:56 history asked user106042 CC BY-SA 3.0