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Jun 12, 2018 at 15:37 comment added Michael Albanese By the way, another name for $\mathfrak{o}_{2k + 1}$ is $W_{2k + 1}$ which is an integral Stiefel-Whitney class.
Mar 5, 2017 at 18:59 history edited Ben McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 5, 2017 at 13:39 comment added Rene Schipperus Look at $\mathbb{Z}_4$ let $c=2$ then $c\equiv 0 \mod 2\mathbb{Z}_4$ and $2c=0$ but $c\neq 0$.
Mar 5, 2017 at 13:37 comment added Rene Schipperus @FrancoisZiegler Yeah, thats actually the book I am reading. He seems to think that the property $2\mathfrak{o}_{2k+1}=0$ implies the conclusion in my question. In fact on page 143 he says "$\mathfrak{o}_1=0$ and $w_1=0$ are equivalent because $2\mathfrak{o}_{1}=0$". Am I crazy but I just dont see this.
Mar 5, 2017 at 13:29 comment added Francois Ziegler I believe this is answered affirmatively by Problem 100 (+ comments) of Prasolov (2007).
Mar 5, 2017 at 13:07 history edited Francois Ziegler CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 5, 2017 at 12:38 history asked Rene Schipperus CC BY-SA 3.0