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Mar 3, 2017 at 21:19 comment added Henry.L Yes but you can do it using simple variantional technique, since you have only finite samples this should not cost too much computational time.
Mar 3, 2017 at 21:08 comment added Amir Sagiv Don't I need to take an infimum over all measures?
Mar 3, 2017 at 20:02 comment added Henry.L @AmirSagiv I think Wasserstein distance is rather easy to compute since you only have to know $\mu$ and know the moments from $f_i$. I do not think there could be an easier one unless I know what you actually know about $f_i$ further.
Mar 3, 2017 at 9:19 comment added Amir Sagiv Thanks! It doesn't seem from the paper/the Wiki page that the Wasserstein distance is easily computable. Am I wrong?
S Mar 2, 2017 at 8:21 history suggested Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 3.0
ADDED links to relevant definitions
Mar 2, 2017 at 8:12 review Suggested edits
S Mar 2, 2017 at 8:21
Mar 1, 2017 at 20:13 history answered Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0