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Mar 2, 2017 at 16:03 comment added anonymous (I've removed my superfluous comments): I claimed earlier that the two sides scaled differently but they do not; @Hannes was kind enough to point out my error to me, thanks for that!
Mar 2, 2017 at 8:23 comment added Tomas In your case, the right hand side also has $\lambda^{\frac12}$. I thought you mean the fowllowing scaling: $f(x)\to f(\lambda x)$, then both sides scale like $\lambda$
Mar 2, 2017 at 5:57 comment added Tomas @anonymous, I don't think so. I think both sides scale like $\lambda$
Mar 2, 2017 at 2:59 comment added Tomas @ChristianRemling, Thanks, But the inhomogeneous version is true according to Sickel's paper I mentioned, which sounds a little bit strange.
Mar 2, 2017 at 1:54 history edited Tomas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 1, 2017 at 16:16 comment added Christian Remling I don't think this can be true. Take $f$ harmonic (and bounded, say) on a large subset of $\mathbb R^n$.
Mar 1, 2017 at 9:29 history asked Tomas CC BY-SA 3.0