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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 17, 2017 at 8:06 comment added Dan Petersen I agree that there is no problem in the projective case.
Feb 17, 2017 at 7:55 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 17, 2017 at 7:52 comment added Francesco Polizzi Any element $g \in G$ gives a biholomorphism $\varphi_g \colon X \to X$. If $X$ is projective, this should be a projective automorphism by GAGA, right? So the action of $G$ on $X$ is actually an algebraic one.
Feb 17, 2017 at 7:39 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 17, 2017 at 7:34 history edited Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 17, 2017 at 7:33 comment added Dan Petersen But we don't know that G acts algebraically, right? A priori it only acts by holomorphic automorphism's.
Feb 17, 2017 at 7:25 history answered Francesco Polizzi CC BY-SA 3.0