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Feb 18, 2017 at 5:42 comment added darij grinberg I suspect that your $Q$ is not "defined similarly" but rather is the inverse of the matrix defined similarly. But yes, this is essentially how it's done.
Feb 17, 2017 at 15:05 comment added Albert Gu I believe the justification is not too bad. Assume the result is true for I=K, J=K, K=[k]. Then for any other I,J of cardinality k, we have $\det(A[I,J])=\det((PAQ)[K,K])=\det(PAQ)\det(Q^{-1}A^{-1}P^{-1}[K^c,K^c]) = \det(PAQ)\det(A^{-1}[J^c,I^c])$, where $P$ is the permutation matrix taking $I$ to $1,\dots,k$ and $I^c$ to $k+1,\dots,n$ (I believe you call this permutation $w(I)$), and $Q$ is defined similarly. So we incur a factor of $\text{sign}(P)\text{sign}(Q)$ which is $(-1)^{\sum I + \sum J}$ by a counting argument, as you proved.
Feb 17, 2017 at 1:19 comment added darij grinberg Really nice... although a nontrivial part of my answer is justifying the "WLOG" in the first sentence. Still, this simplifies a lot.
Feb 16, 2017 at 22:43 review Late answers
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Feb 16, 2017 at 22:28 review First posts
Feb 16, 2017 at 22:42
Feb 16, 2017 at 22:26 history answered Albert Gu CC BY-SA 3.0