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Francesco Polizzi
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I think that the answer is in general no and that a counterexample can be givenconstructed as follows.

  I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper  ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$$$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0 \quad (\spadesuit) $$ thewhere the second equality coming fromis obtained by conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$$$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1 \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology group $H^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$$$H^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}(S) = \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} .$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form $(1,\, 1)$-form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

ThereforeSumming up, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form-form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that a counterexample can be given as follows.

  I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper  ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that a counterexample can be constructed as follows. I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0 \quad (\spadesuit) $$ where the second equality is obtained by conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1 \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology group $H^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$, namely $$H^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}(S) = \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} .$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) $(1,\, 1)$-form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Summing up, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$-form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

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Francesco Polizzi
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I think that the answer is in general no and that the following might be a counterexample can be given as follows.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that the following might be a counterexample.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that a counterexample can be given as follows.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

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Francesco Polizzi
  • 66.3k
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I think that the answer is in general no and that the following might be a counterexample.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

On the other handMoreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that the following might be a counterexample.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

On the other hand, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

I think that the answer is in general no and that the following might be a counterexample.

I will refer to the paper by D. Angella, G. Dloussky, A. Tomassini

On Bott-Chern cohomology of compact complex surfaces, Annali di Matematica Pura ed Applicata 195 (2016), pp 199–217.

Let us consider a non-Kähler surface $S$ of Inoue type. Then we have (see Table 1 p. 210 of the aforementioned paper ) $$h^{1, \, 1}_{\bar{\partial}}(S)=0, \quad \textrm{hence} \quad h^{1, \, 1}_{\partial}(S)=0, \quad (\spadesuit) $$ the second equality coming from conjugation and duality induced by the Hodge $\ast$-operator associated to a given Hermitian metric.

Moreover, we have $$h^{1, \,1}_{\textrm{BC}}(S)=1, \quad (\clubsuit)$$ where $h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}}$ denotes the dimension of Bott-Chern cohomology, namely $$h^{\bullet, \, \bullet}_{\textrm{BC}} = \dim_{\mathbb{C}} \bigg( \frac{\ker \partial \cap \ker \bar{\partial}}{\mathrm{im}\, \partial \bar{\partial}} \bigg).$$

Now, $(\clubsuit)$ means that there exists a $(1, \, 1)$-form $\omega$ on $S$ which is both $\partial$-closed and $\bar{\partial}$-closed, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

On the other hand, $(\spadesuit)$ implies that any $(1,\, 1)$ $\partial$-closed (resp. $\bar{\partial}$-closed) form on $S$ is actually $\partial$-exact (respectively, $\bar{\partial}$-exact).

Therefore, $\omega$ is a $(1, \, 1)$ form on $S$ which is both $\partial$-exact and $\bar{\partial}$-exact, but not $\partial \bar{\partial}$-exact.

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Francesco Polizzi
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