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Feb 7, 2017 at 1:59 comment added JGWang @JamesMartin Thanks for your comment.
Feb 6, 2017 at 14:34 comment added James Martin What is your concern? If $W$ is always non-negative, then the second term is 0 so you can ignore it. In the general case, the sign is negative since by convention $\int_{0}^w f(t) dt = -\int_{w}^0 f(t) dt$.
Feb 6, 2017 at 11:12 comment added Liäm Thanks! But I am not sure about the range of integration and the second indicator in your first equality. $W$ is always non-negative (maybe it was my fault not indicating this fact?). Why do we need to integrate over the entire entended $\mathbb{R}$?
Feb 6, 2017 at 6:56 history answered JGWang CC BY-SA 3.0