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Feb 26 at 3:39 comment added usul Can one show that the $y_1,\dots,y_n$ are negatively associated random variables? Then since the marginals are the same, it would imply that any Chernoff-type bound that applies to the x's also applies to the y's.
Feb 25 at 13:45 history edited MR_BD CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 2, 2017 at 12:06 answer added ofer zeitouni timeline score: 3
Feb 1, 2017 at 11:34 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 7
Feb 1, 2017 at 8:57 history asked MR_BD CC BY-SA 3.0