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Nov 30, 2017 at 19:53 comment added Andres Mejia This showed up in the Saint Petersburg Topology olympiad, I wonder if this was the reference mathcenter.spb.ru/nikaan/olympiad/problemseng.pdf
Jan 31, 2017 at 20:19 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński Let me at least provide the first step (the easiest one but crucial): consider spaces $\ X'\ $ and $\ Y'\ $ obtained from $\ X\times[0;\infty)\ $ and $\ Y\times[0;\infty)\ $ respectively, by removing from them the points which are the centers of 3-dim balls contained in those Cartesian products.
Jan 31, 2017 at 20:13 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński @Joël, actually, spaces $\ X\times[0;\infty]\ $ and $\ Y\times[0;\infty]\ $ are not homeomorphic. I am confident that I've proved it--for Wlodek K's example as well as for mine, for both. It'd be awkward to present my proof in a comment (while the thread seems to be closed, and further answer are not allowed).
Jan 31, 2017 at 16:22 comment added Joël Oh yes, I see where I was wrong. In fact I don't know if $X \times I$ and $Y \times I$ are homeomorphic if $I$ is a half-line.
Jan 31, 2017 at 16:20 comment added Joël Really? Then my intuition must be wrong. I'll think more.
Jan 31, 2017 at 8:33 vote accept timon92
Jan 31, 2017 at 6:57 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński @Joël, I fully agree with your first sentence while I have doubts about your second sentence of your comment.
Jan 31, 2017 at 3:30 comment added Joël Nice example and picture. And that works as well with $I$ replaced by the half-line.
Jan 30, 2017 at 23:55 history edited Wlodek Kuperberg CC BY-SA 3.0
rephrasing the whole answer.
Jan 30, 2017 at 23:46 history undeleted Wlodek Kuperberg
Jan 30, 2017 at 23:30 history deleted Wlodek Kuperberg via Vote
Jan 30, 2017 at 23:28 history answered Wlodek Kuperberg CC BY-SA 3.0