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So I asked this question a few weeks ago on MSEMSE and I was suggested to repost it here.

Let $I$ be the unit interval. Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces such that $X\times I$ is homeomorphic to $Y\times I$. Does it follow that $X$ is homeomorphic to $Y$?

As pointed out in the comments in the other thread, there are counterexamples to analogous questions with $I$ replaced by the circle or the real line. Therefore I expect the answer to my question to be negative too. I would be also interested in what one can assume about $X$ and $Y$ to make the implication true.

So I asked this question a few weeks ago on MSE and I was suggested to repost it here.

Let $I$ be the unit interval. Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces such that $X\times I$ is homeomorphic to $Y\times I$. Does it follow that $X$ is homeomorphic to $Y$?

As pointed out in the comments in the other thread, there are counterexamples to analogous questions with $I$ replaced by the circle or the real line. Therefore I expect the answer to my question to be negative too. I would be also interested in what one can assume about $X$ and $Y$ to make the implication true.

So I asked this question a few weeks ago on MSE and I was suggested to repost it here.

Let $I$ be the unit interval. Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces such that $X\times I$ is homeomorphic to $Y\times I$. Does it follow that $X$ is homeomorphic to $Y$?

As pointed out in the comments in the other thread, there are counterexamples to analogous questions with $I$ replaced by the circle or the real line. Therefore I expect the answer to my question to be negative too. I would be also interested in what one can assume about $X$ and $Y$ to make the implication true.

Post Closed as "Duplicate" by Gro-Tsen, Stefan Waldmann, Stefan Kohl♦, Marco Golla, András Bátkai
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timon92
timon92
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Is it true that $X\times I\sim Y\times I\implies X\sim Y$?

So I asked this question a few weeks ago on MSE and I was suggested to repost it here.

Let $I$ be the unit interval. Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are topological spaces such that $X\times I$ is homeomorphic to $Y\times I$. Does it follow that $X$ is homeomorphic to $Y$?

As pointed out in the comments in the other thread, there are counterexamples to analogous questions with $I$ replaced by the circle or the real line. Therefore I expect the answer to my question to be negative too. I would be also interested in what one can assume about $X$ and $Y$ to make the implication true.