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Jan 31, 2017 at 17:29 comment added Christian Remling @PabloShmerkin: Also, the Lebesgue differentiation theorem (which is what the question is about) fails for the collection of rectangles with sides parallel to the coordinate axes, see Stein, Singular integrals ..., I.5.3.
Jan 31, 2017 at 17:26 comment added Christian Remling @PabloShmerkin: I'm not very happy with your wording here. Your comments are relevant and much appreciated, but what you say is almost exactly what I wrote myself in my update, so I find it a bit harsh to summarize this by saying my answer is incorrect.
Jan 31, 2017 at 13:20 comment added Pablo Shmerkin I agree with Squark, I don't think this answer is correct. The Lebesgue density theorem fails for the collection of all rectangles. It holds for the collection of rectangles with axis-parallel sides, so it is not a matter of eccentricity alone (I think it is an open problem to determine for which sets of directions $A$, the Lebesgue density theorem holds for all rectangles with long side in direction $A$, but it definitely holds if $A$ is finite)
Jan 30, 2017 at 22:41 comment added Vanessa Your new construction is still isomorphic to the usual $L^1$ metric via the transformation $y' = y^{\frac{1}{3}}$. Moreover, any construction that has bounded eccentricity in some neighborhood of any point except for a set of zero measure cannot work (of course we can also start playing with measure, but I don't know how).
Jan 30, 2017 at 22:02 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 30, 2017 at 21:08 comment added Vanessa OK, and what is $f(x,y)$?
Jan 30, 2017 at 21:02 history undeleted Christian Remling
Jan 30, 2017 at 21:00 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 30, 2017 at 20:56 history deleted Christian Remling via Vote
Jan 30, 2017 at 20:49 comment added Christian Remling @Squark: No, I wanted a metric whose balls are rectangles with unbounded eccentricity, see my new version please.
Jan 30, 2017 at 20:47 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 30, 2017 at 20:47 comment added Vanessa (also, I realized that what I really need to know is "Is there a compact Polish space s.t. for any metrization there is a counterexample?", but I guess it's too late to rephrase the question)
Jan 30, 2017 at 20:44 comment added Vanessa Thanks for answering, Christian! Regarding $[0,1]^\omega$: I meant that I want a counterexample with any measure. Regarding $\mathbb{R}^2$: the equation you wrote is not a metric since the "distance" between $(-1,0)$ and $(+1,0)$ vanishes. I guess you meant to e.g. take the half-plane $x \geq 0$? But this is isomorphic to the usual $L^1$ metric (transform by $x' = x^2$)?
Jan 30, 2017 at 16:20 history answered Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0