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Jan 24, 2017 at 9:49 comment added Nick Gill @GeoffRobinson, Yes, that's a good point, thanks for pointing that out. The situation you describe is rather specific though, so could be studied as a case unto itself... I must admit that I'm not entirely convinced that the reduction described in the final paragraph can be carried out, even allowing for the case that you describe, I'd need to think about it some more...
Jan 24, 2017 at 0:42 comment added Geoff Robinson I am not sure that I agree with your last statement. If $G$ has the property, then it is not necessarily the case that $G/O_{2^{\prime}}(G)$ has the property. It could be that every element which normalizes no non-identity $2$-subgroup lies in $O_{2^{\prime}}(G)$- consider a Frobenius group with kernel of odd order and complement of even order.
Jan 23, 2017 at 15:27 history answered Nick Gill CC BY-SA 3.0