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May 25, 2010 at 23:40 comment added HJRW Steve, my apologies, I misunderstood you. You're quite right - the point is that H is determined beforehand.
May 25, 2010 at 23:37 comment added Steve D @Henry: Yes, there is. See Proposition 2.12 in Lyndon-Schupp, pg. 9 , for example. But it's clear this depends on the complement $H$ you choose, as in your example (where the complement <a> would be OK).
May 25, 2010 at 23:32 comment added HJRW Vipul, as the example I have added shows, that isn't quite the point. In the example, the image of g does freely generate.
May 25, 2010 at 23:29 comment added Vipul Naik Steve: Here's where I think you're confused. It's true that a subset B of A maps surjectively to H but that doesn't mean it (or its image) freely generates H.
May 25, 2010 at 23:25 history edited HJRW CC BY-SA 2.5
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May 25, 2010 at 23:18 comment added HJRW What do you mean by 'surely'? There isn't.
May 25, 2010 at 23:04 vote accept Vipul Naik
May 25, 2010 at 22:58 comment added Steve D If $F_1$ maps onto $F_2$ , surely there is a basis $A$ of $F_1$ with subset $B$ such that <$B$> maps isomorphically onto $F_2$ and $A-B$ to the identity. Is the problem then that the subgroup $H$ is being determined beforehand?
May 25, 2010 at 22:11 history answered HJRW CC BY-SA 2.5