No. This is explicitly stated in the paragraph above Theorem 1 of:
The author refers to Proposition 1.
EDIT:
Let's give an explicit example. Let $F=\langle a,b\rangle$ and let $g=a[b,a]=ab^{-1}a^{-1}ba$. Clearly $\langle g\rangle$ is a retract of $F$. But the Whitehead graph of $g$ is two triangles glued along an edge. This is Whitehead-reduced, so $g$ is not part of a free basis for $F$.