Timeline for Lipschitz constant for map between triangles
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 29, 2016 at 23:15 | comment | added | user99087 | this still doesn't make sense to me | |
| Dec 26, 2016 at 15:57 | comment | added | user35593 | Iif you replace (2,0) by $(2, \epsilon)$ you get a valid triangle and this shows that in the affine map has not always the smallest possible Lipschitz constant. Of course this construction also works for other triangles. I doubt that one can derive the Lipschitz constant for arbitrary triangles. | |
| Dec 26, 2016 at 10:08 | comment | added | user99087 | Checking one of my last comments I noted that I've written "triangle $T_2$ with vertices $(1,0),(1,0)$ and $(2,0)$. This doesn't make sense since they are not the vertices of a triangle. Of course I meant $(0,2)$, my bad. For this reason I don't think your answer makes sense. Also, I'm not asking for which couple of triangles the lipschitz constant is equal to the ratio of sides (in which case I already know the lipschitz constant of the affine map is optimal). I'm asking which lipschitz constant is optimal for any given couple of triangles | |
| Dec 25, 2016 at 17:00 | history | answered | Markus Sprecher | CC BY-SA 3.0 |