Timeline for Two different notations which I don't see if they are the same. (In approximation theory)
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 27, 2016 at 21:59 | comment | added | Alan | @FanZheng can you elaborate? in one there's the inverse and in the other there isn't I don't see a way to reconcile between the two, and I hope someone could tell me where am I wrong here? Thanks. | |
| Dec 25, 2016 at 16:49 | comment | added | Fan Zheng | Probably you should check the normalizations. They may be different. | |
| Dec 24, 2016 at 16:34 | comment | added | Alan | Ok, I followed the proof in Stein's and didn't find a mistake in my first edition. It seems there's a problem in the paper. | |
| Dec 24, 2016 at 16:30 | review | Close votes | |||
| Dec 26, 2016 at 5:32 | |||||
| Dec 24, 2016 at 14:41 | history | asked | Alan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |