Timeline for Is $\{x_n\}$ a Cauchy sequence?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
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Dec 23, 2016 at 4:37 | review | Close votes | |||
Dec 23, 2016 at 14:32 | |||||
Dec 22, 2016 at 22:42 | comment | added | Noam D. Elkies | Oops, make that $n - 1/2^n$ . . . | |
Dec 22, 2016 at 22:15 | comment | added | Noam D. Elkies | @Pat Devlin (1) is vacuous (the hypothesis fails in every nonempty metric space: take $x=y$); but if you require this only for $x\neq y$ then yes it's false: let $X$ consist of the set of real numbers $a_n = n + 1/2^n$ and let $f(a_n) = a_{n+1}$. | |
Dec 22, 2016 at 3:30 | comment | added | Isra El | $x$ is an arbitrary but fixed element in $X$ such that : ${x_n}={f^n(x)}$ | |
Dec 21, 2016 at 8:00 | answer | added | Ilya Bogdanov | timeline score: 5 | |
S Dec 21, 2016 at 6:38 | history | suggested | Amir Sagiv |
changed relevant subject tags
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Dec 21, 2016 at 5:35 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S Dec 21, 2016 at 6:38 | |||||
Dec 21, 2016 at 5:34 | comment | added | Amir Sagiv | Just for me to understand, $\{x_n\}$ is a sequence of points in $X$ given an arbitrary $x\in X$? | |
Dec 21, 2016 at 5:09 | comment | added | Pat Devlin | Answering my own question, (2) is true, but it gives me an idea that might show (1) is false. | |
Dec 21, 2016 at 5:07 | comment | added | Pat Devlin | Suppose we assume the weaker condition (1) that $d(f(x), f(y)) < d(x,y)$, then is it obviously false? Or if we started with the stronger assumption (2) that $d(f(x), g(x)) < d(x, y) / 1.001$, then is it obviously true? | |
Dec 21, 2016 at 4:30 | history | edited | Arturo Magidin | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
spelling, grammar
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Dec 21, 2016 at 4:00 | history | asked | Isra El | CC BY-SA 3.0 |