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Dec 20, 2016 at 12:26 comment added JP McCarthy Thank you very much for this. I see on p.16 the paper asserts that "we have the property that a finite quantum group is a group if and only if the underlying algebra $A$ is abelian". I could use this but am possibly more interested in an older reference with fuller proofs. I see no reference to part 2. of my question.
Dec 20, 2016 at 2:18 history edited Konstantinos Kanakoglou CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 20, 2016 at 1:54 history edited Konstantinos Kanakoglou CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 20, 2016 at 1:47 history answered Konstantinos Kanakoglou CC BY-SA 3.0