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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Dec 15, 2016 at 18:29 comment added Anthony Quas I think monotonicity should automatically imply Borel-measurability. Claim 2, however, is nonsense. If $n=1$ and $T(x)=x/(1-x)$, then if $A_1$ is uniformly distributed on the unit interval, $T(A_1)$ has infinite expectation.
Dec 15, 2016 at 16:28 history asked Mark CC BY-SA 3.0