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Jun 7, 2023 at 23:09 comment added No-one If I understand correctly, what you are saying is just that if $T$ is a sufficient statistic then, for all $t\in\mathbb{R}$ with $\mathbb{P}_\theta(T^{-1}(t))\neq 0$, $\mathbb{E}(X|T=t)=\frac{1}{\mathbb{P}_\theta(T^{-1}(t))}\int_{T^{-1}(t)}X d\mathbb{P}_\theta$ is independent of $\theta$. This is obviously true but I don't see how it can be considered a new characterisation of sufficient statistics in terms of their $\sigma$-algebras since it is exactly the usual definition.
Dec 9, 2016 at 1:29 history edited Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 9, 2016 at 0:27 history edited Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 9, 2016 at 0:21 history edited Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 9, 2016 at 0:13 history answered Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0