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Dec 5, 2016 at 20:35 comment added Dmitry Vaintrob Thanks! This is a great example that I should have thought of before posting. I suppose it shows that the dga $\text{End}^*_{\mathbb{P}^1}(\mathcal{O}_P)$ is a deformation of $\text{End}^*_{\mathbb{P}^1}(\mathcal{O}\oplus \mathcal{O}(-1)[1]),$ but they are not deformations in the opposite order (which is why I was curious about this)
Dec 5, 2016 at 20:31 vote accept Dmitry Vaintrob
Dec 5, 2016 at 7:38 history edited Sasha CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 5, 2016 at 5:56 history answered Sasha CC BY-SA 3.0