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Dec 6, 2016 at 20:59 history edited malwin CC BY-SA 3.0
edited some typos.
Dec 6, 2016 at 20:45 vote accept malwin
Dec 3, 2016 at 18:39 answer added gerw timeline score: 0
Dec 2, 2016 at 18:31 comment added malwin I reformulated my question. Can you now understand my question? Thanks.
Dec 2, 2016 at 18:30 history edited malwin CC BY-SA 3.0
total reformulation
Dec 2, 2016 at 18:00 comment added Christian Clason I mean: why can't you consider it as a mapping from $L^2(0,T;V)$ to $L^2(0,T;V^*)$? I assume that's where it is defined, otherwise the question of boundedness does not make sense. (You didn't tell us the definition of the mapping you're considering, so it's hard to understand what you mean here.)
Dec 2, 2016 at 17:58 comment added malwin I don't understand what you mean with "weak theory" in this context. Why is the Moreau-Enveloppe a well-defined mapping from $L^2(0,T;V)$ to it's dual? How can we apply the boundedness of it as a mapping from $V$ to $V^*$? Thank you for your reply!
Dec 2, 2016 at 17:10 comment added Christian Clason Under mild conditions on $V$, $L^2(0,T;V^*)$ is the dual of $L^2(0,T;V)$, so the abstract theory should apply?
Dec 2, 2016 at 13:19 history asked malwin CC BY-SA 3.0