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Nov 29, 2016 at 13:10 comment added M.González I have found that Theorem 4.2 in [S. Janson. Interpolation of subcouples and quotient couples. Ark. Mat. 31 (1993), 307-338] looks like a result more general than my conjecture, but for the real interpolation method. I need to understand this result.
Nov 29, 2016 at 13:05 comment added M.González I cannot see why Pisier's example included in "Tauberian operators" is a counterexample to the previous question.
Nov 28, 2016 at 19:26 comment added Bill Johnson Isn't there a counterexample in your book on Tauberian operators? Take an $\ell_2$ subspace $X$ of $L_1$ that is contained in $L_2$ s.t. $L_1/X$ does not embed into $L_1$ and $X$ is complemented in some $L_p$ with $p<2$. I think Pisier proved that such exists (I am traveling and cannot look things up), But you know this material better than I, so maybe I am misremembering again...
Nov 28, 2016 at 16:51 history asked M.González CC BY-SA 3.0