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Nov 30, 2016 at 21:01 vote accept Avram Grant
Nov 30, 2016 at 21:01
Nov 27, 2016 at 18:38 history edited Michael Stoll
Added elliptic-curves tag
Nov 27, 2016 at 18:34 answer added Michael Stoll timeline score: 12
Nov 27, 2016 at 16:50 comment added Noam D. Elkies Hm, good point. Often for such equations there are trivial solutions with one variable equal zero; e.g. $y^2 = x^3 + 1$ has trivial solutions $(x,y) = (-1,0)$ (2-torsion) and $(0,\pm 1)$ (3-torsion), and also the nontrivial solutions $(2,\pm 3)$ (6-torsion) and no others. But $y^2 = x^3 - 2$ has no integer solutions with $xy=0$. There is the trivial element ("point at infinity") of the group of rational points, but that point is not integral.
Nov 27, 2016 at 11:40 comment added John Bentin What might be a trivial integer solution?
S Nov 27, 2016 at 10:57 history suggested Martin Sleziak
added (diophantine-equations) tag
Nov 27, 2016 at 10:22 review Suggested edits
S Nov 27, 2016 at 10:57
Nov 27, 2016 at 8:00 history edited Avram Grant CC BY-SA 3.0
added 73 characters in body
Nov 26, 2016 at 21:35 comment added Noam D. Elkies That's about a criterion for a curve in the family $y^2 = x^3 + k$ to have rank zero. It can be much sipmler for a single curve in this family, which is what this question is asking (with $k=-2$).
Nov 26, 2016 at 20:02 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 12
Nov 26, 2016 at 19:49 comment added Carlo Beenakker it seems the answer is "no" --- mathoverflow.net/a/202080/11260
Nov 26, 2016 at 19:27 review First posts
Nov 26, 2016 at 19:36
Nov 26, 2016 at 19:26 history asked Avram Grant CC BY-SA 3.0