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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Mar 11, 2017 at 17:56 comment added Sebastian Goette @DenisNardin On an $n$-manifold, one can always get a finite atlas where every "chart" is defined on a disjoint union of contractible subsets. This should be good enough for the argument. To get such an atlas, start with the first barycentric subdivision of a triangulation and consider the open stars of all vertices coming from degree $k$ simplices as one chart. Then you have $(n+1)$ types of charts, and so you can always do with a sum over $n(n+1)$ forms of the type $f\,dg$.
Nov 25, 2016 at 23:42 comment added Fallen Apart @DenisNardin Actually manifolds addmiting finite atlas would be enought for me, but I wrote it in this way because in mentioned question they assumed nothing about $M.$ Thank you one more time for your first comment. This assured me that I haven't missed something.
Nov 25, 2016 at 23:34 comment added Denis Nardin @FallenApart Oh I see. I was thinking only of compact manifolds. Sorry, I guess I was distracted :). Good call on the Whitney embedding theorem, by pulling back along a tubular neighbourood that should reduce the problem to $\mathbb{R}^n$, where it is obvious (since the cotangent bundle is trivial).
Nov 25, 2016 at 23:25 comment added Fallen Apart @DenisNardin I see problem, cause in order to apply $\gamma$ I need to write 1-form $\alpha$ as a finite sum. When manifold $M$ is not compact, it possibly do not admin cover with finite amout of charts. And hence gluing by partition of unity would give me infinite sum. If I remember correctly the key in Swan's proof to make vector bundles finitely generated is Whitney Embedding theorem.
Nov 25, 2016 at 23:08 comment added Denis Nardin @FallenApart Note that you don't need the Serre-Swan theorem to get that formula: it is enough to notice that it holds locally and that you can patch those local expressions using partitions of unity (which, admittedly, is half of the proof of the Serre-Swan theorem anyway...)
Nov 25, 2016 at 22:59 comment added Fallen Apart @DenisNardin Your impression is fine, but since there was no explenation of surjectivity I assume that it should be obvious as well. But I think you are right. My explenation is standard one and among good mathematician there is no need to write down such trivial proof. I also want to point out that David Speyer in mentioned question also gave answer. And in his post he reffered to this n-cat caffe discussion in which they claim that $\gamma$ is obviously surjective.
Nov 25, 2016 at 22:40 comment added Denis Nardin My impression is that "because the relations displayed above are valid in the classical interpretation of the calculus" refers to the existence of the map, not to its surjectivity (which I would prove exactly as you do).
Nov 25, 2016 at 21:34 history edited Fallen Apart CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 16 characters in body
Nov 25, 2016 at 21:05 history edited Fallen Apart
It is not question about kahler manifolds. Do not add this TAG!
S Nov 25, 2016 at 20:47 history suggested Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0
This is not really a question about modules. And I correct some obvious typos.
Nov 25, 2016 at 20:16 review Suggested edits
S Nov 25, 2016 at 20:47
Nov 25, 2016 at 19:12 history edited Fallen Apart CC BY-SA 3.0
added 20 characters in body
Nov 25, 2016 at 19:03 comment added Fallen Apart @LaurentMoret-Bailly Module of smooth vector fields on $M.$
Nov 25, 2016 at 19:01 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly What is $\mathfrak{X}(M)$?
Nov 25, 2016 at 18:52 history edited Fallen Apart CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Nov 25, 2016 at 18:37 history asked Fallen Apart CC BY-SA 3.0