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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Nov 27, 2016 at 21:26 vote accept DCT
Nov 24, 2016 at 7:58 comment added Niels For non smooth schemes the natural answer is that you need the whole cotangent complex, that was built especially for this purpose.
Nov 24, 2016 at 7:55 comment added Niels What you write does not seem completely correct, $H^{0}(X,f^{*}T_Y\otimes I)$, where $I$ is your square zero ideal, makes more sense to me. Moreover you do only have a pseudo-torsor under this group.
Nov 23, 2016 at 23:34 answer added Sándor Kovács timeline score: 3
Nov 23, 2016 at 22:13 history asked DCT CC BY-SA 3.0