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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Nov 23, 2016 at 16:15 comment added Geoff Robinson Yes, it is indeed.
Nov 23, 2016 at 16:07 comment added kneidell Hi @GeoffRobinson - is absolutely irreducible the same as absolutely simple?
Nov 23, 2016 at 15:53 comment added Geoff Robinson I should have said "absolutely irreducible" above.
Nov 23, 2016 at 15:44 comment added Geoff Robinson So maybe the right question is: is some conjugate of $H$ commensurable with $G$, since the condition is blind to conjugation by elements of $1 + pM_{n}(\mathbb{Z}_{p})$. ( also, I think that if the groups remain irreducible (mod $p$), then the groups upstairs must be conjugate by an element of $1 + pM_{n}(\mathbb{Z}_{p})$ if they are conjugate at all).
Nov 23, 2016 at 10:21 comment added David Loeffler They will not be commensurable in general. Take e.g. $G$ to be the diagonal matrices in $\mathbf{SL}_2$ and $H$ to be the conjugate of $G$ by $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & p \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$. Then $G$ and $H$ have the same image mod $p$ but $G \cap H$ is trivial.
Nov 23, 2016 at 10:09 history edited kneidell CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 23, 2016 at 10:04 history asked kneidell CC BY-SA 3.0