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Nov 22, 2016 at 15:05 history edited Pat Devlin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 22, 2016 at 14:56 history edited Pat Devlin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 22, 2016 at 14:55 comment added Pat Devlin I can agree with all this.
Nov 22, 2016 at 14:54 comment added CoffeDeveloper I'm not sure anymore we need to solve f(x) = 0, if we gave a function in theory we are also providing the domain of the function (even if the domain computation is not feasible: we are already giving that "by hypotesis"). So I need another argument other than that
Nov 22, 2016 at 14:31 comment added Pat Devlin You could pick the function $f(x)$ to be a polynomial with no repeated roots. So $f(x)=0$ iff there's a sign change.
Nov 22, 2016 at 14:17 comment added Joel David Hamkins Can you explain why it is required that one solve $f(x)=0$?
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:29 comment added Pat Devlin (I figured that)
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:28 comment added CoffeDeveloper I missed the "can't" I readed it like "can" (I missed a " 't ") XD
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:28 comment added Pat Devlin @DarioOO that's the sort of reply I was hoping for with my comment. ;-)
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:27 vote accept CoffeDeveloper
Nov 23, 2016 at 9:51
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:27 comment added CoffeDeveloper Undecideability of roots! so simple you are a genius!
Nov 22, 2016 at 13:23 history answered Pat Devlin CC BY-SA 3.0