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Nov 5, 2017 at 1:29 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Oct 6, 2017 at 0:31 answer added Arturo Sanjuán timeline score: 2
Nov 20, 2016 at 22:54 comment added Igor Khavkine I'm not quite sure how to read your notation (you are taking a tensor product of measures?). Moreover, as far as I know, the Lebesgue measure (in the usual straight forward sense) does not exist on any infinite dimensional Hilbert space (or any infinite dimensional normed space).
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:13 comment added Rombaldo Meniscus With respect to $m \otimes P$ where $m$ is a lebesgue measure and $P$ is a probability measure.
Nov 19, 2016 at 8:34 comment added Igor Khavkine Just to be clear, you want to minimize a functional $S \colon C^k(L^2,L^2) -> \mathbb{R}$, for some $k$, where $C^k(L^2,L^2)$ is the space of $k$-times Fréchet differentiable functions $L^2 \to L^2$? Usually, in the calculus of variations, the functional $S$ is defined by integrating over some domain, which for you would be a domain in $L^2$. How are you integrating over $L^2$?
Nov 18, 2016 at 17:50 history asked Rombaldo Meniscus CC BY-SA 3.0