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Jan 28, 2019 at 20:48 comment added Piotr Hajlasz I learned about this non-embedding result about a couple of years ago and I was quite surprised.
Nov 17, 2016 at 8:23 comment added Jean Van Schaftingen No, in fact. The integral can be finite for some $q$ and infinite for every $p < q$. The only possibility is to decrease slightly the smoothness in the left-hand side of the inequality by taking a $W^{r, p}$ norm with $r <s$ and $q < p$.
Nov 17, 2016 at 0:02 comment added JumpJump I understand. Btw, would it make any difference if I restrict my $p$ and $q$ is a small interval? For example, if I assume that $1<p<q<1+\epsilon$ where $\epsilon>0$ could be arbitrary small. Would this make any different?
Nov 16, 2016 at 23:56 vote accept JumpJump
Nov 16, 2016 at 15:35 history answered Jean Van Schaftingen CC BY-SA 3.0