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Jul 23, 2019 at 8:12 comment added YCor The linked article of V. Puppe seems to say "manifold" for "(connected) closed manifold". Is the same implicit assumption made in the question?
Jul 22, 2019 at 14:32 comment added YCor Restatement of the question using group theory language: If $\mathrm{Diff}^\infty(M)$ is torsion-free, does it follow that $\mathrm{Homeo}(M)$ is torsion-free?
Jul 22, 2019 at 13:55 history edited Abenthy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 3, 2016 at 16:50 history edited YCor
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Nov 3, 2016 at 11:51 history edited Abenthy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 3, 2016 at 8:45 history asked Abenthy CC BY-SA 3.0