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Nov 9, 2016 at 15:33 comment added Geoff Robinson @NazihNahlus : My first comment above points out that they are precisely the groups with $G/F(G)$ Abelian. There are groups of Fitting length $2$ which do not have that property.
Nov 3, 2016 at 23:56 comment added Geoff Robinson I do not consider it unreasonable to use standard group theoretic notation in a comment on a question with a finite groups tag.
Nov 3, 2016 at 16:42 comment added YCor @GeoffRobinson corollary of our two comments: everybody is not a finite group theorist (at least according to your definition) Anyway, I haven't done a graduate course in infinite group theory either...
Nov 3, 2016 at 9:12 comment added Geoff Robinson @YCor: I can't speak for infinite group-theorists, but I think that all finite group theorists (who have done a graduate course including finite group theory) would be familiar with $F(G)$ and $\Phi(G).$ In any case, Arturo Magidin's explanation is accurate.
Nov 3, 2016 at 5:02 comment added Arturo Magidin @YCor: $F(G)$ is the Fitting subgroup (unique largest normal nilpotent subgroup); $\Phi(G)$ is the Frattini subgroup (intersection of maximal subgroups).
Nov 3, 2016 at 4:46 comment added YCor Groups with a nilpotent derived subgroup are called "nilpotent-by-abelian". @GeoffRobinson I'm not sure everybody knows your notation ($F(G)$, $\Phi(G)$) by heart. I don't.
Nov 3, 2016 at 4:41 history edited Nazih Nahlus
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Nov 2, 2016 at 13:39 comment added Nazih Nahlus Thank you. You may check my Conjecture/Question at mathoverflow.net/questions/253729/…
Nov 2, 2016 at 13:16 comment added Geoff Robinson Another characterization is that they are the groups $G$ such that $G/\Phi(G)$ is Metabelian.
Nov 2, 2016 at 12:35 comment added Tobias Kildetoft I have no idea if these have actually been studied. One thing is that they satisfy the Taketa inequality, as I explain at math.stackexchange.com/questions/272849/…
Nov 2, 2016 at 12:35 comment added Geoff Robinson These are precisely the finite groups $G$ such that $G/F(G)$ is Abelian. Additionally, $G/F(G)$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of ${\rm Out}(F(G))$ for such a group. I'm not sure what more one can expect to say.
Nov 2, 2016 at 12:28 history edited Nazih Nahlus CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 2, 2016 at 12:22 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 2, 2016 at 12:19 history asked Nazih Nahlus CC BY-SA 3.0