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Nov 1, 2016 at 14:30 vote accept Gal Porat
Nov 1, 2016 at 14:11 answer added Lucia timeline score: 22
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:40 comment added Sylvain JULIEN To me it might mean that the probability that $gcd(p-1,q-1)$ is a power of two equals $2/3$.
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:20 comment added Gal Porat Looks like $\frac{3}{2^{2n}}$. Interesting. But maybe this is because $\frac{6}{\pi^2}$ is the probability that two random numbers are coprime, and this number is close to $\frac{2}{3}$.
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:11 comment added Sylvain JULIEN And what about the density of prime pairs such that $v_{2}(gcd(p-1,q-1))=n$?
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:06 comment added Gal Porat @SylvainJULIEN an empirical search suggests that the density of primes such that $gcd(p−1,q−1)=2^n$ is approximately $2^{-(2n-1)}$.
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:56 comment added Sylvain JULIEN Would it be plausible that the density of prime pairs such that $gcd(p-1,q-1)=2^{n}$ equals $2^{-n}$?
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:03 history edited Gal Porat CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 1, 2016 at 10:58 review First posts
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:00
Nov 1, 2016 at 10:54 history asked Gal Porat CC BY-SA 3.0