Timeline for Is the set of prime pairs such that $gcd(p−1,q−1)=2$ of positive density?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Nov 1, 2016 at 14:30 | vote | accept | Gal Porat | ||
Nov 1, 2016 at 14:11 | answer | added | Lucia | timeline score: 22 | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:40 | comment | added | Sylvain JULIEN | To me it might mean that the probability that $gcd(p-1,q-1)$ is a power of two equals $2/3$. | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:20 | comment | added | Gal Porat | Looks like $\frac{3}{2^{2n}}$. Interesting. But maybe this is because $\frac{6}{\pi^2}$ is the probability that two random numbers are coprime, and this number is close to $\frac{2}{3}$. | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:11 | comment | added | Sylvain JULIEN | And what about the density of prime pairs such that $v_{2}(gcd(p-1,q-1))=n$? | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 12:06 | comment | added | Gal Porat | @SylvainJULIEN an empirical search suggests that the density of primes such that $gcd(p−1,q−1)=2^n$ is approximately $2^{-(2n-1)}$. | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:56 | comment | added | Sylvain JULIEN | Would it be plausible that the density of prime pairs such that $gcd(p-1,q-1)=2^{n}$ equals $2^{-n}$? | |
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:03 | history | edited | Gal Porat | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 5 characters in body; edited title
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Nov 1, 2016 at 10:58 | review | First posts | |||
Nov 1, 2016 at 11:00 | |||||
Nov 1, 2016 at 10:54 | history | asked | Gal Porat | CC BY-SA 3.0 |