Skip to main content
4 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 1, 2016 at 18:36 comment added Rbega The $L^1$ part was just motivation. The question is what might be the correct notion of "integrable" for the difference of two measures.
Nov 1, 2016 at 18:18 comment added R W So what? Once again - all what you say is formulated in terms of the difference $f-g$ which is assumed integrable. But apparently you prefer to complicate things.
Nov 1, 2016 at 13:31 comment added Rbega I don't think this answers what I was trying to ask (which I've clarified) as in general the measure $\mu$ would be signed. So the function $1$ is not integrable (it only exists as a sort of principal value...
Nov 1, 2016 at 3:55 history answered R W CC BY-SA 3.0