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May 28, 2011 at 14:57 comment added LSpice Why should the lcm of the orders of the eigenvalues be $q - 1$? For example, this is false when $\varphi = 1$. Perhaps you are just claiming that one can cook up a $\varphi$ with this property? If so, I don't see it immediately.
May 20, 2010 at 12:08 history edited Xandi Tuni CC BY-SA 2.5
added last paragraph
May 20, 2010 at 10:58 history answered Xandi Tuni CC BY-SA 2.5