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Jan 15, 2017 at 4:22 answer added mbe timeline score: 1
Oct 27, 2016 at 17:51 comment added Michael Hardy As far as I know, $\operatorname{E}(g(X)\mid Y)$ should be a measurable function of $Y$. Why would it be a function of $X$? Did I miss something? $\qquad$
Oct 27, 2016 at 13:55 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 4
Oct 27, 2016 at 12:51 history asked Richard CC BY-SA 3.0