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Oct 13, 2016 at 5:58 vote accept Radmir Sultamuratov
Oct 12, 2016 at 22:00 history closed Franz Lemmermeyer
Michael Albanese
Alex Degtyarev
Stefan Kohl
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Oct 12, 2016 at 21:10 comment added darij grinberg See web.mit.edu/~darij/www/algebra/va3.pdf (Sections 1-3) for some fundamentals of these "doubly-infinite" formal series. (This is all folklore material, but few people have bothered writing it down. Note that my writeup is complicated by the extra lengths I went to make things work natively in positive characteristic.)
Oct 12, 2016 at 19:47 comment added vltava This Laurent series DOES converge---on the unit circle (the limit is the Dirac delta function, with singularity at the point "1"). Convergence is, of course, not in the classical but in the distributional sense. The details of this were worked out by Gottfried Köthe in 1952---for a reference, see my answer below.
Oct 12, 2016 at 17:35 review Close votes
Oct 12, 2016 at 22:00
Oct 12, 2016 at 17:04 comment added Gerald Edgar This is known as a "Laurent series". The region of the complex plane where it converges is, in general, an annulus centered at $0$. Of course the annulus may be (as in your example) empty.
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:40 answer added vltava timeline score: 2
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:22 answer added R.P. timeline score: 4
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:15 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 7
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:13 comment added Radmir Sultamuratov thank you, but i know it, my question is:Is there ANY WAY to work with such generating functions?
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:12 comment added Alan The radius of convergence is not the same for the two series. For the series $1/(1-z)$ the radius of convergence is $|z|<1$ and for $1/(1-1/z))$ is $|z|>1$.
Oct 12, 2016 at 16:08 history asked Radmir Sultamuratov CC BY-SA 3.0