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Oct 11, 2016 at 20:03 comment added Kevin Smith I think it is too. I noticed that this afternoon but I can't quite see how to prove it, nor how to characterise the general case.
Oct 11, 2016 at 16:53 comment added Greg Martin I'm fairly sure that $$ a(n) = \begin{cases} 1, &\text{if } n=1, \\ -1, &\text{if $n$ is prime}, \\ 0, &\text{otherwise.} \end{cases} $$ is also a (non-multiplicative) solution for $k=2$. There are probably hybrid solutions between this and $a(n)=\mu(n)$ as well.
Oct 11, 2016 at 8:43 comment added Kevin Smith Thank you, Greg. I have realised that my expecting solutions to be multiplicative came from starting with the primes and assuming $a(p)$ to be non-zero.
Oct 11, 2016 at 8:34 vote accept Kevin Smith
Oct 11, 2016 at 6:46 history answered Greg Martin CC BY-SA 3.0