Timeline for Is $\sharp E((\mathbb{F}_{p^{2}})/E(\mathbb{F}_{p}))=1$ for almost all primes $p$? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 13, 2021 at 20:36 | vote | accept | The Thin Whistler | ||
| Sep 26, 2016 at 14:46 | history | closed |
Chris Wuthrich R.P. Alex Degtyarev Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta Alexey Ustinov |
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| Sep 26, 2016 at 14:06 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 26, 2016 at 14:46 | |||||
| Sep 26, 2016 at 13:59 | answer | added | David E Speyer | timeline score: 7 | |
| Sep 26, 2016 at 13:46 | comment | added | Chris Wuthrich | No. $E(\mathbb{F}_{p^2})$ has at least $p^2+1 -2p$ points while $E(\mathbb{F}_p)$ has at most $p+1+2\sqrt{p}$ points. So only finitely many $p$ will satisfy you requirement. | |
| Sep 26, 2016 at 13:37 | history | edited | The Thin Whistler | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 5 characters in body; edited title
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| Sep 26, 2016 at 13:28 | history | asked | The Thin Whistler | CC BY-SA 3.0 |