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Sep 24, 2016 at 16:26 comment added T. Amdeberhan I don't mean a proof, but an alternative verification of your first line.
Sep 24, 2016 at 16:24 comment added Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta Yes, but being non-negative is not enough. We need it to be large enough to cancel the factor $(x+y+z)$.
Sep 24, 2016 at 16:18 comment added T. Amdeberhan $\nu_p$ is the $p$-adic valuation. Since $\frac{(3x)!}{x!^3}=\binom{3x}{2x}\binom{2x}{x}\in\mathbb{N}$ and by Legendre's formula $\nu_p(n!)=\frac{n−s_p(n)}{p−1}$, the first quantity you wrote is non-negative.
Sep 24, 2016 at 8:58 history answered Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta CC BY-SA 3.0