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Sep 10, 2016 at 13:03 vote accept sunya hu
Sep 10, 2016 at 13:00 answer added Alex Gavrilov timeline score: 3
Sep 10, 2016 at 10:37 comment added Alex Gavrilov Yes, I was wrong there: there are some exceptions. I will better write an answer instead of a comment.
Sep 10, 2016 at 8:38 comment added sunya hu $\mathbb{C}(t)$ is a proper subfield of $\mathbb{C}(t,u)$ since if $u \in \mathbb{C}(t)$ then $u = f(t)/g(t)$ where $f(x)$, $g(x)$ $ \in \mathbb{C}[x]$ but it yields $(f(t)/g(t))^2 + t^2 = 1$ since $t$ is transcendental hence it is impossible. $\mathbb{C}(t,u)$ is a splitting field over $\mathbb{C}(t)$ of a separable polynomial of $\mathbb{C}(t)[x]$ namely $x^2 + t^2 -1$ hence $\mathbb{C}(t,u)$ is Galois over $\mathbb{C}(t)$
Sep 10, 2016 at 6:48 comment added sunya hu the link is math.stackexchange.com/q/1920483/262757
Sep 10, 2016 at 6:33 comment added YCor please provide a link to the MathSE question
Sep 10, 2016 at 6:32 comment added Alex Gavrilov What you did is basically a proof by contradiction that the extension you consider is not Galois. In fact, $\mathbb{C}(t,u)=\mathbb{C}(z)$, where $z=u+it$, and this field can't be a Galois extension of its subfield.
Sep 10, 2016 at 1:19 review First posts
Sep 10, 2016 at 1:54
Sep 10, 2016 at 1:15 history asked sunya hu CC BY-SA 3.0