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Dec 21, 2022 at 11:33 comment added FShrike @IvanDiLiberti I regret to inform you I'm no longer sure if that is even true. A user on MSE commented, under my linked question, that we could make it work. For a time, I thought I'd figured it out, but I hadn't...
Dec 21, 2022 at 9:27 comment added Ivan Di Liberti @FShrike ahah, thanks!
Dec 21, 2022 at 9:26 comment added FShrike @IvanDiLiberti It is surprising and possibly even false. But if we further assume the existence of at least one point in $A_0$ that makes it a well-pointed space, then we can have the result.
Dec 21, 2022 at 9:23 comment added FShrike @YTS I asked about how to amend this, on MSE here. With two sets of slightly stronger hypotheses, we can make it work, and that’s just so far. Maybe someone will find a way to make this proof always work
Apr 24, 2019 at 14:26 comment added YTS Why the map $f$ reach just one point when $f_1$? It seems like in principle is just a sequence of points $x_n=\alpha_n(1)\circ \cdots \alpha_1(1)$
S Nov 18, 2018 at 17:28 history suggested Lilalas CC BY-SA 4.0
improve formatting
Nov 18, 2018 at 17:01 review Suggested edits
S Nov 18, 2018 at 17:28
Nov 5, 2017 at 17:30 comment added Ivan Di Liberti This is just surprising. Can I suggest you to improve the notation? It is a bit confusing.
Oct 2, 2016 at 2:56 history edited Hari Rau-Murthy CC BY-SA 3.0
added 47 characters in body
Aug 28, 2016 at 2:16 history edited Hari Rau-Murthy CC BY-SA 3.0
added 191 characters in body
Aug 28, 2016 at 2:09 history answered Hari Rau-Murthy CC BY-SA 3.0