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Aug 28, 2016 at 18:18 comment added Christian Remling On the other hand, $id/dx$ and $Hd/dx$ (are self-adjoint on suitable domains and) have spectrum $\mathbb R$ and $[0,\infty)$, respectively (maybe I'm off by a sign here). This means that if $f=c + g$, $c$ outside the spectrum and $g$ small in a suitable sense, then your resolvent will be bounded.
Aug 28, 2016 at 18:15 comment added Christian Remling The whole set-up really seems unnatural to me as both operators are unbounded for $f=0$, so they won't be bounded for small $f$ (for example, a relatively compact perturbation). What kind of class of functions $f$ did you have in mind?
Aug 28, 2016 at 13:57 comment added alby @IgorKhavkine My apologize for that - just edited the question. Thanks!
Aug 28, 2016 at 13:55 history edited alby CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 28, 2016 at 6:35 comment added Igor Khavkine @Ever_99, if your $H$ denotes the Hilbert transform, rather than a constant or a function of $x$, you should state that explicitly. That information significantly changes part of your question.
Aug 28, 2016 at 5:36 history edited alby CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 28, 2016 at 2:49 comment added fedja OK, that may be trickier. Let me think...
Aug 28, 2016 at 1:57 comment added alby @fedja Thanks! It's just that I still need to deal with the operator with the Hilbert transform together with the function $f$
Aug 28, 2016 at 1:55 comment added alby @ChristianRemling Thanks! But how can one deal with the operator with the Hilbert transform and a general function $f$ ?
Aug 28, 2016 at 1:20 comment added fedja Why don't you just solve the first order ODE as usual (integrating factors, etc.). That will give you a fairly explicit kernel for the inverse and it may happen that one of the standard (un)boundedness tests will apply to your particular case.
Aug 28, 2016 at 0:23 comment added Christian Remling Now (= your comment) you're asking if $-1$ is outside the spectrum of $d/dx$, which is true because this operator (on a suitable domain) has purely imaginary spectrum.
Aug 27, 2016 at 23:12 comment added alby Thanks! Do you mean that same thing happens for operators like $(\partial_x +1 )^{-1}$ ? ( I can assume $f$ is real-valued in this question actually)
Aug 27, 2016 at 22:22 comment added Igor Khavkine The operator $(-i\partial_x + 3)^{-1}$ is not bounded, where $3$ could also be any real number, though it becomes bounded when $3$ is replaced by any non-real complex number. You can check this explicitly if you write its fundamental solution as an integral operator with kernel $G(x,x')$, where $(-i\partial_x +3) G(x,x') = \delta(x-x')$. The same goes for your differential operators, if you can get some information about their fundamental solutions (look up the "variation of constants" formula, if you don't know it already).
Aug 27, 2016 at 21:48 comment added alby Oh sorry I just found out that I made a typo in the question...It should be the inverses of those operators. Thanks anyway!
Aug 27, 2016 at 21:44 history edited alby CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 27, 2016 at 20:58 review First posts
Aug 27, 2016 at 22:42
Aug 27, 2016 at 20:52 comment added Christian Remling Operators involving derivatives are, as a rule, never bounded.
Aug 27, 2016 at 20:47 history asked alby CC BY-SA 3.0