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Nov 13, 2016 at 13:18 vote accept Jan Steinebrunner
Nov 13, 2016 at 13:17 vote accept Jan Steinebrunner
Nov 13, 2016 at 13:18
Nov 6, 2016 at 21:22 vote accept Jan Steinebrunner
Nov 13, 2016 at 13:17
Nov 5, 2016 at 20:50 answer added Peter May timeline score: 5
Nov 5, 2016 at 19:27 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Oct 6, 2016 at 19:24 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Sep 6, 2016 at 19:11 answer added Jan Steinebrunner timeline score: 2
Sep 6, 2016 at 18:46 comment added Denis Nardin If you have found a compelling answer to your question, by all means post it.
Sep 6, 2016 at 18:37 comment added Jan Steinebrunner As it turns out the two universal properties are equivalent for the most types of bundles! This is Assertation 8.3 of Kirby and Siebenmann's "Foundational Essay IV". I think this is pretty surprising/amazing, should I give this as an answer to the question? And should I edit the question such that it fits this answer better?
Aug 27, 2016 at 12:13 comment added Jan Steinebrunner Later on a PL structure on a TOP bundle $\xi$ is defined as a TOP morphism $\phi:\xi\to\gamma_{PL}$, this is somehow problematic, it there are multiple morphisms even to $\gamma_{TOP} $ . I will have a close look at the consequences later. Thank you a lot !
Aug 27, 2016 at 12:06 comment added Denis Nardin Either way I feel confident enough to state that 2.2-2.4 in that paper are wrong, but I venture a guess that if you use the correct definitions the rest paper won't be really affected.
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:58 comment added Jan Steinebrunner Yes, but I think there is an additional problem in 2.4: a morphism to the universal bundle can only be thought of as a trivialisation, if its base map is constant and the fibre it's mapping to has a preferred trivialisation
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:51 comment added Denis Nardin Right, that sounds stronger. In general you'll have to twist the inclusion $\xi_A\to \xi$ by an automorphism of $\xi_A$. See for example remark 2.4: he seems to say that all trivializations of a trivial bundle are homotopic, but that's simply false: the set of trivialization up to homotopy is isomorphic to the set $[X,Top_N]$
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:47 comment added Jan Steinebrunner I think Proposition 2.3 states that the morphism is unique up to homotopy.
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:43 comment added Jan Steinebrunner Sorry, I unintentionally posted it before I was finished. What he requires then has to be a much stronger condition. I am not even sure, whether it is still true like this
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:37 comment added Jan Steinebrunner @DenisNardin Ok, then this is the reason for my confusion. I took the definition from arxiv.org/abs/math/0105047 Where Rudyak defines a universal fibre bundle like this on page 22. Theorem-Definition 2.2
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:27 comment added Denis Nardin I think you are misunderstandiing the definition of universal bundle. Usually only what you call the "base morphism" is required to be unique: as you correctly note the universal vector bundle of rank $n$ does have automorphisms. Basically the definition of universal bundle is rigged so to correspnd to a natural isomorphism $F(X)\cong [X,B]$.
Aug 27, 2016 at 11:03 history asked Jan Steinebrunner CC BY-SA 3.0