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Sep 27, 2016 at 11:47 vote accept user97621
Sep 16, 2016 at 14:10 comment added Taras Banakh In my example the embedding $A\subset B$ is not ultrafilter-like. So, sorry!
Sep 16, 2016 at 14:04 answer added Taras Banakh timeline score: 1
Sep 15, 2016 at 10:44 comment added user97621 I am a bit lost in notation: above it said $X=\beta\omega$... Let me try to start from scratch. We have two free ultrafilters $a,b \in\beta\omega$, $a\neq b$. the proper map is $\beta\omega\rightarrow \beta\omega/\{a,b\}$. the ultrafilter-like map is $\beta\omega\setminus\{a,b\}\rightarrow \beta\omega$. Is this correct?
Sep 15, 2016 at 10:38 comment added user97621 I am a bit lost in notation: above it said $X=\beta\omega$... Let me try to start from scratch. We have two free ultrafilters $a,b \in\beta\omega$, $a\neq b$.
Sep 15, 2016 at 6:20 comment added Taras Banakh The topology on the domain $X$ is the subspace topology inherited from $\beta\omega$. The qotient map $q:\beta\omega\to Y$ restricted to $X=\beta\omega\setminus\{a,b\}$ is a topological embedding of $X$ into $Y=B$ (because of the properness of $q$. By the way, in my first comment I made a mistake defining $q$ as the qutient map from $X$. It should be the quotient map from $\beta\omega$.
Sep 13, 2016 at 6:19 comment added user97621 I am sorry for delay. what is the topology on the domain of the ultrafilter-like map? it is not the induced topology? I require that the topology on subset A is induced from B
Aug 31, 2016 at 20:26 comment added Taras Banakh And what is wrong with $q(a),q(b)\in Y$?
Aug 31, 2016 at 15:22 comment added user97621 so is it $\beta\omega\rightarrow \beta\omega / \{a,b\}$ and $\beta\omega\setminus \{q(a),q(b)\} \rightarrow \beta\omega/ \{a,b\}$ ? (there is another misprint in the first map, nothing follows $\beta$) I do not see it, as $q(a),q(b)\in Y$ are elements of the quotient..
Aug 31, 2016 at 15:08 comment added Taras Banakh $\beta\omega\to\beta/\{a,b\}$ is the proper map. $\beta B\setminus\{q(a),q(b)\}$ should be $\beta\omega\setminus\{q(a),q(b)\}$. Sorry for this misprint.
Aug 31, 2016 at 6:50 comment added user97621 I do not understand your notation: which is the ultralifter-like map and which is the proper map ? $\beta\omega\rightarrow\beta\omega/\{a,b\}$ is the proper map and $\beta B\setminus\{q(a),q(b)\} \rightarrow \beta\omega/\{a,b\}$ is the ultrafilter-like map ? but the latter is not a subset, is it?
Aug 30, 2016 at 13:29 comment added Taras Banakh How about the following (possible) counterexample: Let $a,b$ be two distinct free ultrafilters in $X=\beta\omega$, $Y=X/\{a,b\}$ be the quotient space and $q:X\to Y$ be the quotient map. Let $B=Y$ and $A=\beta B\setminus \{q(a),q(b)\}$ and $f:A\to X\setminus\{a,b\}$, $g:B\to Y$ be the identity maps. It seems that no map $h$ with the required properties exists. Is it Ok?
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Aug 24, 2016 at 8:28 history asked user97621 CC BY-SA 3.0