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Aug 9, 2016 at 16:24 comment added yi li Thank you ,I have drawn a picture of it,and maybe I know why was that
Aug 9, 2016 at 10:57 comment added Fedor Petrov The limit problem is less delicate than this inequality. Actually what it says is that for large $n$ approximately the half of the integral $\int_{0}^\infty (se^{-s})^n ds$ is concentrated on $[0,1]$ and another appr. half on $[1,\infty)$. This is a standard excercise on Laplace method: the graph of $(se^{-s})^n$ approaches a Gaussian centered at $s=1$ and is almost symmetric.
Aug 9, 2016 at 9:19 comment added yi li thank you so much for your help . By the way,can you use this inequality to solve the problem below.? I think if it has an "accurate" upper bound this inequality would be more useful. Sorry perhaps my Engish is very poor.
Aug 9, 2016 at 8:20 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0